A friend of mine is a divorce attorney and she told me a case that she had were a couple bought a house together. They both had their name on the title, but only the husband’s name on the loan. A few years later they got seperated and filed for a divorce. During this time thier house was forclosed and sold at auction to a 3rd party. The wife is now sueing the 3rd party claiming that she owns 50% of the property.
My questions are:
- Does she have a case?
- If she does, how would you screen for this in your research. It seems like it would be almost impossible to.
With the number of divorces these days it seems like this could come up quite often.